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How do I reconcile 99.4% from Medutest with 96.4% from the supplier?

Asked 29 Dec 2024Modified 16 months agoViewed 46k times
29

Stated plainly: 99.4% · Medutest · 96.4%.

I noticed this today and I have not touched anything since, in case the state is diagnostic.

I have not discarded anything yet, so a test is still possible if that is the recommendation.

Is this recoverable, and how would I tell?

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ZM
askedzainab_mustafa16k1729 Dec 2024
I would gently push back on the second point — the evidence there is thinner than stated. – j_wierzbicki 6 months ago
Adding for future readers: the certificate should carry the lot number, not just a batch code. – Dr_Sara_Kuusela 4 months ago
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5 Answers

Accepted answer first, then by votes
-1

Accepted answer

Stated carefully, read the chromatogram before you read the number, because the number without the trace is not a measurement, it is a claim.

Buffer versus acid in the mobile phase changes the ionisation state of basic and acidic residues, shifting retention and selectivity — same vial, potentially different separation.

Concretely, retention time is sequence-specific and method-specific, so comparing your result to a supplier value using a different method is meaningless without method documentation.

The ICH Q3A impurity thresholds and the relevant pharmacopoeial chapters all specify method validation requirements that almost no research-grade certificate claims to meet.

One qualification: achieving purity above roughly 98 per cent on a 30-residue peptide is fighting the chemistry of synthesis, not the quality of the purification.

If you are ranking vendors, specify a method and have all samples tested at the same place.

edited 31 Jan 2025 by h_villanueva — added the citation requested in comments

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HV
answered · acceptedh_villanueva50k386 Jan 2025
3This is the first explanation of that which has actually made sense to me. – tandem_gradient 7 months ago
2Note that the label instructions differ between agents on precisely this point. – tess_amankwah 6 months ago
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29

Worth being precise here: the short answer is that two competent laboratories on identical material will disagree, and the disagreement is almost always explainable by method differences.

Gradient slope controls resolution, and gentler slopes resolve co-eluting impurities into separate peaks — so the better method reports the worse purity number.

To be exact about it, integration of the shoulder — whether you use perpendicular drop or tangent skim — determines what area gets assigned to the main peak versus the impurity table.

Published side-by-side method comparisons show that a two-point difference in purity on the same vial is easily explained by method choice alone.

The caveat is that purity without identity is only half an answer — a high purity does not mean the peak is actually what you think it is.

The practical summary: ask for the chromatogram and the method, and ignore the headline number until you have both.

edited 31 Jan 2025 by lane_transit — clarified the distinction between purity and content

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LT
answeredlane_transit42k3817 Jan 2025
4The arithmetic checks out. I ran the same numbers and got the same result. – meniscus_film 3 months ago
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25

Stated carefully, identity and purity are orthogonal, and a high purity says almost nothing about whether the peak is actually what you think it is.

Mobile phase additive choice affects ionisation and peak shape — TFA gives sharp peaks but suppresses mass spectrometry signal, formic acid gives worse peaks but preserves signal.

Sample solvent strength affects peak shape — if you inject in strong solvent on a gradient starting in weak solvent, the solvent peak can distort your main peak or create a false shoulder.

Compare purity within a single laboratory on the same method, never across laboratories.

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DV
answereddead_volume49k3828 Jan 2025
2Have you seen anything published on this, or is it inference from the mechanism? – two_point_four 7 months ago
Useful. I have added the accept threshold suggestion to my own notes. – Dr_Bram_Verhoeven 5 months ago
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19

Area percentage is not mass percentage, and conflating the two is the most common misreading of a purity figure.

The fraction of your main peak that is actually your target versus isomers, fragments or related sequences is invisible without complementary identity testing.

If you are ranking vendors, specify a method and have all samples tested at the same place.

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M4
answeredmz_411399k2588 Feb 2025
18

More usefully, understanding purity requires separating the chemistry from the method from the reporting convention, and the three are not independent.

Detection wavelength matters because 214 nm sees the peptide backbone while 280 nm sees only aromatic side chains — so truncation impurities lacking a tryptophan are invisible at 280 nm.

The practical summary: ask for the chromatogram and the method, and ignore the headline number until you have both.

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GS
answeredgradient_slope41k3823 Mar 2025
7Thank you — the worked example is what makes this usable. – marta_okonkwo 6 months ago
6Related: the same reasoning applies to the counter-ion question. – lane_transit 4 months ago
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