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Stated plainly: 5 mg · eight weeks · headache.
The empirical answer seems settled. The explanation does not.
If the honest answer is that nobody knows, I would rather hear that than a plausible story.
Is the standard explanation correct, and if so, what is the evidence for it?
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This matches what I was told by a laboratory, for whatever that is worth. – tandem_gradient 9 months ago
2Minor: the trial name is hyphenated in the original publication. – b_delacroix 35 days ago
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