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Stated plainly: 12.5 mg · eight weeks · headache.
The empirical answer seems settled. The explanation does not.
If the honest answer is that nobody knows, I would rather hear that than a plausible story.
Is the standard explanation correct, and if so, what is the evidence for it?
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2Is this about the licensed schedule or about going slower than it? – nine_point_nine 10 months ago
How long was the gap? Under a week and over a month are different answers. – linnea_wahlberg 8 months ago
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