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Does the SURMOUNT-OSA population resemble anyone asking about oral semaglutide here?

Asked 3 Apr 2024Modified 2.0 years agoViewed 31k times
13

The case in front of me: SURMOUNT-OSA · oral semaglutide.

The figures are clear enough; the question is what they mean and what they do not.

I can supply the numbers if the specifics change the answer.

What can I legitimately conclude from this figure?

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MF
askedmeniscus_film34k383 Apr 2024
3Confirming from the other direction: I did the wrong thing and got exactly the predicted outcome. – bea_castellanos 7 months ago
4Is there a reason to prefer the second method over the first, other than cost? – Dr_Rosalind_Achebe 8 months ago
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5 Answers

Accepted answer first, then by votes
145

Accepted answer

To be exact about it, the hazard ratio is the relative effect. What changes decisions is the absolute effect, and converting between them requires the event rate in the control arm, which is usually in the same table and rarely in the abstract.

The rodent thyroid C-cell findings that generated the labelled warning appear to be species-specific: rodent C-cells express GLP-1 receptors at high density, human C-cells at very low density, and human calcitonin data across large trial populations has not reproduced the signal. A family history of medullary thyroid carcinoma or MEN2 is nonetheless a genuine contraindication rather than a theoretical one.

Creatinine is a muscle-derived metabolite, so a substantial loss of lean mass lowers serum creatinine and mathematically raises estimated GFR without anything happening to the kidney. If you have lost twenty kilograms, your creatinine-based eGFR is flattering you. Cystatin C is not muscle-dependent and is the measure to use when the two disagree.

The PIONEER programme established oral semaglutide’s efficacy and the constraints on its administration, and the bioavailability figure of roughly one per cent is what drives the fasting and water-volume requirements[1].

If the trend across three draws is flat, the difference between draws one and two was noise. Most of what people react to is noise.

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NT
answered · acceptedn_takahashi36k3822 Apr 2024
5Small correction: the units in the third paragraph should be micrograms, not milligrams. – Dr_Tomas_Kral 3 months ago
6Do you have a reference for the last claim? Not disputing it, just want to read it. – Dr_Ilse_Vandenberg 4 months ago
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57

Read the estimand before the effect size. Almost every apparent contradiction between two published figures from the same trial resolves once you notice that one is a trial-product estimand and the other is a treatment-policy estimand.

HbA1c is a weighted average, not a flat one: roughly half the signal comes from the most recent month. That is why a value drawn six weeks after a change already reflects most of the effect, and why a value drawn during rapid haematological turnover reflects something other than glycaemia.

In practice, liver enzymes are a poor surrogate for hepatic histology in both directions: substantial steatohepatitis with normal transaminases is common, and modest enzyme elevation with minimal fibrosis is common. If the question is fibrosis, the answer comes from a non-invasive score such as FIB-4 or a stiffness measurement, not from ALT.

Worth being explicit that this is interpretation of published data and not medical advice. Laboratory results belong in a conversation with whoever ordered them.

Read the confidence interval, read the estimand, and compute the absolute effect yourself. It takes two minutes and it changes how the result feels.

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answeredtandem_gradient85k2483 May 2024
7Good answer, but the confidence interval in the cited trial is wider than implied. – Dr_Ingrid_Baumgartner 9 months ago
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42

This is a question about what the trial was designed to answer, and the honest response is that it was not designed to answer this.

The early fall in estimated glomerular filtration rate on treatment is haemodynamic rather than structural. Reduced intraglomerular pressure lowers the filtration rate acutely and preserves the glomerulus chronically — the same pattern seen with renin-angiotensin blockade and with SGLT2 inhibition. A dip of a few millilitres per minute in the first weeks, followed by a shallower long-term slope, is the desired trajectory, not a warning sign.

A fasting lipid panel drawn during rapid weight loss reads oddly for a mechanical reason: mobilised adipose tissue delivers free fatty acids to the liver, and hepatic triglyceride export rises. Triglycerides can transiently increase while the person is doing exactly the right thing. Draw the panel when weight has been stable for a few weeks if you want an interpretable number.

Convert everything to an absolute effect before you compare two interventions. Relative effects are not comparable across different baseline risks.

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answeredb_delacroix48k3829 Jul 2024
33

Mechanically, the confidence interval is the informative part. A point estimate with an interval spanning no effect is a different object from the same point estimate with a tight interval, and the abstract presents them identically.

Estimated average glucose from HbA1c: eAG in mg/dL = 28.7 × A1c − 46.7, or in mmol/L, 1.59 × A1c − 2.59. An A1c of 6.5 per cent is therefore about 140 mg/dL or 7.8 mmol/L. The relationship is a population regression, so an individual can sit well off the line.

SURMOUNT-1 reported mean weight reductions of approximately 15, 19 and 21 per cent at tirzepatide 5, 10 and 15 mg respectively at 72 weeks[1].

The papers are readable. Read the paper rather than the summary of the paper, especially where the summary is enthusiastic.

edited 2 May 2024 by amara_nwachukwu — clarified the distinction between purity and content

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answeredamara_nwachukwu41k3811 Apr 2024
32

A single laboratory value is a point on a noisy curve. What you want is a trend across at least three draws under comparable conditions, and "comparable" is doing a lot of work in that sentence.

Absolute risk reduction, worked: if the control-arm event rate is 8.0 per cent over the follow-up period and the hazard ratio is 0.80, the treated rate is approximately 6.4 per cent, the absolute risk reduction is 1.6 percentage points, and the number needed to treat is 1 ÷ 0.016 ≈ 63 over that period. A 20 per cent relative reduction and a number needed to treat of 63 are the same finding stated two ways, and only one of them sounds impressive.

I would resist reading a subgroup finding as a result. Subgroups in these trials were not powered, and a striking subgroup in a large trial is the expected consequence of multiplicity.

None of this replaces a clinician who can see the whole picture, and the whole picture is usually where the answer is.

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DV
answeredDr_Ilse_Vandenberg78k2486 Jul 2024
2This is the first explanation of that which has actually made sense to me. – ruaidhri_o_shea 7 months ago
3Note that the label instructions differ between agents on precisely this point. – u100_marks 8 months ago
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