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What does the mechanism of survodutide predict that ATTAIN-1 did not test?

Asked 26 Jun 2024Modified 21 months agoViewed 12k times
5

Conditions: survodutide · ATTAIN-1.

I want to know whether this is a real physical effect or an artefact of how it is measured.

What prompted the question is an inconsistency between two sources I otherwise trust.

Is the standard explanation correct, and if so, what is the evidence for it?

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askedoona_kekkonen16k1826 Jun 2024
5Small correction: the units in the third paragraph should be micrograms, not milligrams. – tyndall_haze 6 months ago
4Do you have a reference for the last claim? Not disputing it, just want to read it. – Dr_Rosalind_Achebe 4 months ago
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5 Answers

Accepted answer first, then by votes
53

Accepted answer

Start from the receptor and the rest follows: which receptors, in what ratio, with what signalling bias, reached at what concentration.

Tirzepatide is an imbalanced dual agonist: it is more potent at the GIP receptor than at the GLP-1 receptor, which is the opposite of what most people assume from the way it is described. Whether the GIP contribution works through central appetite pathways, through adipose insulin sensitisation, or through modulating the GLP-1 signal is genuinely unsettled, and the honest position is that the clinical result is clear and the attribution is not.

Put another way, the split between delayed gastric emptying and central satiety matters because they have different time courses. Gastric emptying effects show substantial tachyphylaxis over weeks; the central appetite effect does not, or does so much more slowly. That dissociation is the best available explanation for why nausea fades while appetite suppression persists.

Tirzepatide’s imbalanced receptor pharmacology, with greater potency at GIPR than at GLP-1R, is characterised in its pharmacology publication and is the starting point for any mechanistic discussion of the agent[1].

The mechanism is settled enough to be useful and unsettled enough to be interesting, which is a reasonable place for a field to be.

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answered · acceptedvialroom87k14823 Oct 2024
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47

Mechanically, dose equivalence across agents with different receptor profiles is not a defensible concept, and the attempt to construct it is the most common analytical error in this area.

What the glucagon arm of a tri-agonist adds is energy expenditure and hepatic fat mobilisation; what it costs is glycaemic control and an increase in heart rate. That is why the tri-agonists show a steeper weight-loss curve and why their development requires more care around cardiac and glycaemic endpoints than a pure GLP-1 agonist does.

The Aib substitution at position 8 replaces alanine with α-aminoisobutyric acid, which is sterically hindered enough that dipeptidyl peptidase-4 cannot cleave the N-terminal dipeptide. That single change takes the half-life from minutes to hours. The C18 diacid on a linker at Lys26 then binds albumin reversibly, which both shields the molecule from renal filtration and creates a depot that releases slowly — taking hours to about a week.

The role of the area postrema and the hypothalamic arcuate nucleus in GLP-1-mediated appetite suppression is supported by both the neuroanatomy of receptor expression and by the effect of lesioning studies in animal models.

Structure predicts pharmacokinetics reliably and clinical effect unreliably. Keep the two claims separate.

edited 21 Oct 2024 by Dr_Wren_Halliday — added the method parameters

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DH
answeredDr_Wren_Halliday40k3812 Oct 2024
3Have you seen anything published on this, or is it inference from the mechanism? – sian_llewellyn 5 months ago
4Useful. I have added the accept threshold suggestion to my own notes. – cake_intact 7 months ago
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22

The half-life is a formulation achievement rather than an intrinsic property. Native GLP-1 has a plasma half-life of a couple of minutes; everything in this class is a set of modifications engineered to defeat that.

Oral bioavailability of a 4 kDa peptide is essentially zero without help. Oral semaglutide is co-formulated with sodium N-(8-[2-hydroxybenzoyl]amino)caprylate, which raises local gastric pH and transiently increases transcellular permeability in a small area of gastric mucosa. It works, and it delivers roughly one per cent of the dose, which is why the oral tablet strengths are an order of magnitude above the injectable and why fasting and water volume are not optional details.

Orforglipron is not a peptide at all, which changes everything downstream: it is orally bioavailable without an absorption enhancer, it has no fasting or water requirement of the same kind, it does not require cold chain, and it cannot be assayed by any of the peptide methods discussed elsewhere on this site.

Do not convert doses between agents. There is no exchange rate, and constructing one is how people arrive at an order-of-magnitude error.

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EL
answeredesben_lykke15k2820 Sept 2024
17

Mechanically, GLP-1R is a class B G-protein-coupled receptor signalling predominantly through Gs and cyclic AMP, and most of the interesting pharmacology in this class is about where that signalling happens rather than how hard it is driven.

The GIP agonism-versus-antagonism question remains open, and the awkward fact is that both directions have produced weight loss in humans. The reconciling hypothesis is that chronic GIPR agonism produces receptor desensitisation and therefore functions as a pharmacological antagonist, but that is a hypothesis fitted to the data rather than an independent finding.

The limitation here is that almost all of the human mechanistic work is in the licensed agents, so mechanistic claims about the investigational tri-agonists rest on animal and early-phase data.

If you want to reason about a new agent, start from its receptor profile and its half-life. Almost everything else follows.

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KS
answeredk_szabo45k381 Oct 2024
Do you have a reference for the last claim? Not disputing it, just want to read it. – Dr_Nadia_Farsi 9 months ago
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14

In practice, two structural interventions do the work: substitution at the DPP-4 cleavage site to stop enzymatic degradation, and a fatty-acid chain to bind serum albumin and create a slowly released reservoir. Remove either and you are back to a compound requiring continuous infusion.

Comparing a 2.4 mg dose of one agonist to a 15 mg dose of another tells you nothing, because the molar potencies at their respective receptors differ, the receptor profiles differ, and the exposure per milligram differs. The only defensible comparison is between clinical outcomes in trials with comparable populations and durations, which is why SURMOUNT-5 exists and why indirect comparisons should be read sceptically.

The structural basis of semaglutide’s pharmacokinetics — Aib-8, the Arg34Lys substitution and the C18 diacid–AEEA linker at Lys26 — is described in the original medicinal chemistry publication, and it is worth reading once because it makes the design logic explicit[1].

I would separate what is established structurally from what is inferred clinically. The chemistry is settled; the attribution of clinical effect to specific receptor arms mostly is not.

The chemistry is the interesting part and it is also the well-documented part. Read the medicinal chemistry papers; they are short and they explain the design.

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MO
answeredmarta_okonkwo87k25829 Jul 2024
7I tested this on two lots and got the same answer, so at least it reproduces. – k_szabo 23 days ago
6The timing signature is the useful part. Everything else is confounded. – esben_lykke 9 months ago
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Your answer

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Not medical advice. Research-use-only compounds are not approved for human use.