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What does the mechanism of oral semaglutide predict that SOUL did not test?

Asked 1 Jun 2024Modified 23 months agoViewed 34k times
24

The specifics, since they change the answer: oral semaglutide · SOUL.

I would like the mechanism, because I want to be able to reason about the cases nobody has written about.

I have tried to reason it out from first principles and got to two contradictory conclusions.

What is actually going on here, physically?

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ZM
askedzainab_mustafa21k271 Jun 2024
Same question, and the manufacturer's own page did not answer it either. – cap_the_luer 3 months ago
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4 Answers

Accepted answer first, then by votes
175

Accepted answer

Mechanically, this is answerable mechanistically, and the mechanism actually predicts the side-effect profile, which is unusual and worth exploiting when reasoning about it.

Native GLP-1 has a circulating half-life of one to two minutes because dipeptidyl peptidase-4 cleaves the two N-terminal residues. Substituting the position-8 alanine, as the long-acting analogues do, blocks that cleavage and is the single most consequential modification in the class.

Mass shifts and what they usually mean

Δ mass (Da)Most likely causeDistinguishing feature
+1Deamidation (Asn or Gln)New peak, slightly earlier retention
−17Loss of ammoniaOften with deamidation
−18Dehydration / succinimidepH-dependent, reversible
+16Oxidation (Met, Trp)Earlier retention, light-related
−128Missing Gln or LysDeletion sequence from synthesis
0Isomer: racemisation or scramblingSame mass, shifted retention

To be exact about it, glucose-dependence arises because the insulinotropic signal amplifies glucose-stimulated secretion rather than initiating secretion. With no glucose signal to amplify, there is little to amplify.

The position-8 substitution conferring DPP-4 resistance appears in essentially every long-acting agent in the class, which is about as strong a piece of convergent evidence as medicinal chemistry offers.

The caveat is that mechanism predicts direction and rarely predicts magnitude in an individual, and people reason from mechanism to dose far too confidently.

Tissue distribution first, then signalling. Nearly every question in this tag resolves at the first step.

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DW
answered · acceptedDr_Elias_Weiss25k2714 Aug 2024
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51

Answering this needs the distinction between the native hormone and the pharmacological agents, whose half-lives differ by three orders of magnitude and whose effects therefore differ in kind.

Receptor density and downstream coupling differ between tissues, so the dose-response curves for glycaemia, weight and nausea are not the same curve. That is the pharmacological basis for titration.

Central effects reach the arcuate nucleus and the area postrema, regions with an incomplete blood-brain barrier. That anatomy is why a large peptide can act centrally at all, and it also explains the nausea, since the area postrema is the chemoreceptor trigger zone.

Area postrema involvement in nausea from this class is supported by lesion studies in animals and by the anatomy of the circumventricular organs.

Mechanism is a good guide to what to expect and a poor guide to how much.

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DB
answeredDr_Aoife_Brennan20k2723 Jul 2024
42

Answer first: the receptor is a class B G-protein-coupled receptor signalling mainly through Gs and cyclic AMP, and almost every downstream effect people ask about traces back to where that receptor is expressed rather than to what it does when activated.

Gastric emptying delay attenuates with continued exposure for long-acting agents through receptor desensitisation, which is why the early nausea usually settles while the appetite effect persists.

To be exact about it, glucagon suppression is also glucose-dependent and is lost during hypoglycaemia, which preserves the counter-regulatory response — a genuinely elegant piece of physiology and the reason the class is safe in this respect.

The incretin effect itself was established by comparing the insulin response to oral and intravenous glucose loads matched for plasma glucose; the difference is what the gut hormones contribute.

Nausea and appetite share an anatomy, which is why they are hard to separate by dose.

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JV
answeredjo_vandeberg23k2812 Jul 2024
4Same experience here, different supplier. – tandem_gradient 6 months ago
3The albumin-binding explanation for the half-life is the part that finally made it click. – halvard_ness 4 months ago
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2

The receptor is also expressed in the heart, kidney and vasculature, which is the plausible route for effects that are not obviously metabolic.

Albumin binding does the rest of the work. A fatty-acid chain attached through a linker binds circulating albumin reversibly, which both shields the peptide from renal clearance and creates a depot; that is how a two-minute hormone becomes a once-weekly drug.

Structural work on the receptor by cryo-electron microscopy has resolved the agonist-bound active state and is the basis for current structure-guided design in this class.

Glucose-dependence is the property to remember; it explains the safety profile on its own.

edited 19 Aug 2024 by Dr_Ilse_Vandenberg — added a caveat about sampling

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DV
answeredDr_Ilse_Vandenberg113k2483 Aug 2024

Your answer

Ask PeptideStack is a static archive. Posting is closed, but the norms are worth stating: answer the question that was asked, show your working, cite the trial or the certificate, and say plainly where the evidence runs out.

Not medical advice. Research-use-only compounds are not approved for human use.