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How do I convert the FLOW hazard ratio into an absolute risk reduction?

Asked 23 Jan 2025Modified 14 months agoViewed 16k times
9

I have three data points across nine months, which I hope is enough to see a trend.

I would like the arithmetic checked rather than the conclusion asserted.

I have deliberately not used an online calculator because I want to be able to check the result.

Can someone walk through the arithmetic step by step?

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TV
askedten_mg_vial31k13823 Jan 2025
5Is this the randomised phase or the open-label extension? – Dr_Priya_Raghunathan 8 months ago
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5 Answers

Sorted by votes
87

Answer first: the cardiovascular signal in this class is a reduction in major adverse cardiovascular events in populations already at elevated risk, not a general cardioprotective claim for everyone.

Cardiovascular composites in this programme are typically cardiovascular death, non-fatal myocardial infarction and non-fatal stroke. When one component drives the result, that is worth knowing, because the components differ in how much they matter.

Relative to absolute, worked

QuantityValueDerivation
Control-arm event rate8.0 %From the trial table, not the abstract
Hazard ratio0.80Reported
Treated event rate6.4 %8.0 × 0.80
Absolute risk reduction1.6 pp8.0 − 6.4
Number needed to treat631 ÷ 0.016
Relative risk reduction20 %1 − 0.80

The last two rows describe the same finding. Only one of them is used in headlines.

A twenty per cent relative reduction on a baseline three-year event rate of eight per cent is an absolute reduction of about one and a half points, which is a number-needed-to-treat somewhere in the region of sixty to seventy. Both framings are true and they read very differently.

Heart rate up a few beats, blood pressure down a few millimetres, events down about a fifth in high-risk populations. That is the honest summary.

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answerednine_point_nine60k14812 Feb 2025
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59

Answering this properly needs the absolute risk reduction rather than the relative one, because the relative figure is stable across risk strata and the absolute figure is not.

Resting heart rate rises by roughly two to four beats per minute across the class. The mechanism is not fully settled, the magnitude is consistent, and it has not translated into an adverse outcome signal in the trials that looked.

The heart-failure question is separate again, and the evidence there is largely in the preserved-ejection-fraction population with obesity, where the trials measured symptoms and function rather than mortality.

Read SELECT for the without-diabetes population and the earlier outcome trials for the with-diabetes one. They are not the same result.

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VR
answeredv_ramaswamy68k571 Feb 2025
42

What the outcome trials established is that the class does not increase cardiovascular risk and, in the higher-risk populations studied, reduces it. Those are two separate findings from the same programme.

SELECT randomised people with established cardiovascular disease and overweight or obesity but without diabetes to semaglutide 2.4 mg, and reported roughly a twenty per cent relative reduction in the primary composite. The absolute difference over about three years was on the order of one and a half percentage points.

Baseline risk decides how much the relative reduction is worth. The same twenty per cent applied to a one per cent annual risk and a five per cent annual risk produce very different absolute numbers.

Heart-rate elevation in this class is documented consistently enough across agents that it should be treated as a class effect rather than as a finding about any one molecule.

Population, baseline risk, endpoint definition. In that order, then the effect size.

edited 7 Jun 2025 by u100_marks — clarified the distinction between purity and content

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UM
answeredu100_marks52k3721 May 2025
35

Start with the population. Cardiovascular benefit in established disease and cardiovascular benefit in primary prevention are different claims supported by different evidence.

Benefit appears to track exposure duration rather than switching on at a threshold, which is what you would expect from a mechanism working partly through weight, blood pressure and glycaemia rather than instead of them.

The caveat that matters: none of this is a reason for anyone to alter cardiovascular medication, and I am not in a position to advise on that.

The outcome trials are the evidence; the mechanism is still an argument. Cite the first, be careful with the second.

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ED
answerede_dziedzic51k14710 May 2025
The number needed to treat is the framing that finally made this concrete for me. – fib4_reader 2 months ago
Do you have a reference for the last claim? Not disputing it, just want to read it. – Dr_Malik_Osei 21 days ago
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32

Specifically, the mechanism question and the outcome question are separate. The outcome data stand whether or not the mechanistic story is settled, and the mechanistic story is not settled.

Systolic blood pressure falls by about three to six millimetres of mercury at the doses studied, most of it early and much of it attributable to weight loss rather than to a direct vascular effect.

These are trial populations on licensed product. Research-grade material of unverified content is not the thing that was studied.

Ask for the absolute risk reduction and the number needed to treat. If a source will not give you both, it is selling something.

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TO
answeredt_oyelaran79k4829 Apr 2025
5Which population was that figure from? It moves a lot between the trials. – olu_babatunde 20 days ago
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Your answer

Ask PeptideStack is a static archive. Posting is closed, but the norms are worth stating: answer the question that was asked, show your working, cite the trial or the certificate, and say plainly where the evidence runs out.

Not medical advice. Research-use-only compounds are not approved for human use.