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How do I convert the SURPASS-3 hazard ratio into an absolute risk reduction?

Asked 1 May 2025Modified 11 months agoViewed 34k times
25

I have the full paper rather than the abstract, and the supplementary appendix.

I can do the algebra. I am not confident about the conversion factors.

If there is a standard way to lay this out, I would rather learn that than invent one.

What is the general form of this calculation?

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NK
askednils_karlberg9.4k151 May 2025
4Voting to keep this open — it is more specific than it first looks. – aine_mulcahy 6 months ago
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5 Answers

Accepted answer first, then by votes
94

Accepted answer

A hazard ratio from SURPASS-3 cannot be converted into an absolute risk reduction without the control-arm event rate, and that rate is the number people forget to carry across. The arithmetic: absolute reduction equals the control event rate minus the treated event rate, and the treated rate is approximately the control rate multiplied by the ratio. A hazard ratio of 0.80 against a 10 per cent control rate is a 2-point absolute reduction and a number needed to treat of 50; the same 0.80 against a 2 per cent control rate is 0.4 points and a number needed to treat of 250. Identical ratio, six-fold difference in what it is worth. Take the control-arm rate and the follow-up duration from the SURPASS-3 paper, not from the abstract, and do the subtraction yourself.

Worth being precise here: heart-rate increase and blood-pressure reduction both occur in this class, in opposite directions, and both are modest. Reading one without the other gives a misleading picture.

Resting heart rate rises by roughly two to four beats per minute across the class. The mechanism is not fully settled, the magnitude is consistent, and it has not translated into an adverse outcome signal in the trials that looked.

Cardiovascular composites in this programme are typically cardiovascular death, non-fatal myocardial infarction and non-fatal stroke. When one component drives the result, that is worth knowing, because the components differ in how much they matter.

Heart-rate elevation in this class is documented consistently enough across agents that it should be treated as a class effect rather than as a finding about any one molecule.

Ask for the absolute risk reduction and the number needed to treat. If a source will not give you both, it is selling something.

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DV
answered · acceptedDr_Bram_Verhoeven84k2488 May 2025
8Absolute risk reduction rather than relative would make this much more useful. – tobias_maartens 8 months ago
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38

In practice, the relevant distinction is between a trial that measured cardiovascular safety and one powered to demonstrate benefit. Several early trials did the first and are quoted as though they did the second.

SELECT randomised people with established cardiovascular disease and overweight or obesity but without diabetes to semaglutide 2.4 mg, and reported roughly a twenty per cent relative reduction in the primary composite. The absolute difference over about three years was on the order of one and a half percentage points.

Concretely, benefit appears to track exposure duration rather than switching on at a threshold, which is what you would expect from a mechanism working partly through weight, blood pressure and glycaemia rather than instead of them.

The caveat that matters: none of this is a reason for anyone to alter cardiovascular medication, and I am not in a position to advise on that.

The outcome trials are the evidence; the mechanism is still an argument. Cite the first, be careful with the second.

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VV
answeredvoid_volume9.5k1525 Aug 2025
The placebo-arm figure is the part everyone omits. – halvard_ness 2 months ago
2Thank you for separating the surrogate from the outcome. That distinction gets lost constantly. – tandem_gradient 4 months ago
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29

Answering this properly needs the absolute risk reduction rather than the relative one, because the relative figure is stable across risk strata and the absolute figure is not.

Systolic blood pressure falls by about three to six millimetres of mercury at the doses studied, most of it early and much of it attributable to weight loss rather than to a direct vascular effect.

More usefully, the heart-failure question is separate again, and the evidence there is largely in the preserved-ejection-fraction population with obesity, where the trials measured symptoms and function rather than mortality.

The cardiovascular safety requirement for new glycaemic agents is why these trials exist at all: regulators required an outcome programme, and the benefit finding was in that sense an unexpected dividend.

Population, baseline risk, endpoint definition. In that order, then the effect size.

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LB
answeredlaminar_bench69k5730 May 2025
24

Blood pressure falls by a few millimetres of mercury in this class, which is small individually and not small across a population.

Baseline risk decides how much the relative reduction is worth. The same twenty per cent applied to a one per cent annual risk and a five per cent annual risk produce very different absolute numbers.

A relative risk reduction quoted without the baseline risk is close to meaningless, and it is how most of these numbers travel.

Heart rate up a few beats, blood pressure down a few millimetres, events down about a fifth in high-risk populations. That is the honest summary.

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DV
answeredDr_Bram_Verhoeven84k24819 May 2025
17

Start with the population. Cardiovascular benefit in established disease and cardiovascular benefit in primary prevention are different claims supported by different evidence.

A twenty per cent relative reduction on a baseline three-year event rate of eight per cent is an absolute reduction of about one and a half points, which is a number-needed-to-treat somewhere in the region of sixty to seventy. Both framings are true and they read very differently.

SELECT is the trial to read for primary-prevention-adjacent populations without diabetes; SUSTAIN-6 and LEADER are the diabetes-population outcome trials for semaglutide and liraglutide respectively.

Read SELECT for the without-diabetes population and the earlier outcome trials for the with-diabetes one. They are not the same result.

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YM
answeredyuki_morishita10k1422 Jun 2025
5Same experience here, different supplier. – b_delacroix 4 months ago
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