PeptideStack
5.2kquestions
20kanswers
220users

How comparable are cagrilintide and liraglutide on the evidence available?

Asked 6 Nov 2024Modified 17 months agoViewed 47k times
35

Details up front: cagrilintide · liraglutide.

I have used one of these for a while and I am considering switching, which requires a reason.

What I care about is reproducibility, because a result I cannot repeat is not useful to me.

So which one, and on what grounds?

clinical-trials
clinical-trials

Reading the primary literature properly: estimands, intention-to-treat versus per-protocol, confidence intervals, absolute versus relative…

913 questions
semaglutide
semaglutide

A GLP-1 receptor agonist with a fatty-acid-acylated backbone and a roughly one-week half-life, marketed for type 2 diabetes and for weight…

360 questions
tirzepatide
tirzepatide

A dual GIP and GLP-1 receptor agonist. Questions here cover the SURPASS and SURMOUNT programmes, the practical differences from a pure GLP-1…

162 questions
shareeditfollowflag
LM
askedlucia_marchetti18k286 Nov 2024
2Worth adding that the method section is where the answer usually is. – s_bhattacharya 2 months ago
add a comment

5 Answers

Accepted answer first, then by votes
16

Accepted answer

A single laboratory value is a point on a noisy curve. What you want is a trend across at least three draws under comparable conditions, and "comparable" is doing a lot of work in that sentence.

Creatinine is a muscle-derived metabolite, so a substantial loss of lean mass lowers serum creatinine and mathematically raises estimated GFR without anything happening to the kidney. If you have lost twenty kilograms, your creatinine-based eGFR is flattering you. Cystatin C is not muscle-dependent and is the measure to use when the two disagree.

HbA1c is a weighted average, not a flat one: roughly half the signal comes from the most recent month. That is why a value drawn six weeks after a change already reflects most of the effect, and why a value drawn during rapid haematological turnover reflects something other than glycaemia.

SELECT reported a hazard ratio of 0.80 (95% CI 0.72–0.90) for the primary composite major adverse cardiovascular event endpoint with semaglutide 2.4 mg in overweight or obese adults with established cardiovascular disease and without diabetes[1].

The caveat is the population. Trial participants were screened, monitored and supported; the effect size in an unmonitored setting is not the trial effect size, and it is not obvious in which direction the difference runs.

The papers are readable. Read the paper rather than the summary of the paper, especially where the summary is enthusiastic.

edited 22 Dec 2024 by Dr_Elias_Weiss — added the placebo-arm figures

shareimprove this answerflag
DW
answered · acceptedDr_Elias_Weiss46k384 Dec 2024
Sponsored

PeptideMeter - Independent Peptide Analytics

Aggregated, published test results and vendor ratings built from submitted batches. Methodology stated, dataset browsable, no listing fees.

Browse results
12

The hazard ratio is the relative effect. What changes decisions is the absolute effect, and converting between them requires the event rate in the control arm, which is usually in the same table and rarely in the abstract.

Estimated average glucose from HbA1c: eAG in mg/dL = 28.7 × A1c − 46.7, or in mmol/L, 1.59 × A1c − 2.59. An A1c of 6.5 per cent is therefore about 140 mg/dL or 7.8 mmol/L. The relationship is a population regression, so an individual can sit well off the line.

A network meta-analysis can rank agents that were never compared directly, but only under a transitivity assumption — that the trials being linked are similar enough in population, duration and endpoint definition for the indirect comparison to hold. In this field that assumption is often visibly violated, which is why indirect rankings should be read as hypotheses.

I would resist reading a subgroup finding as a result. Subgroups in these trials were not powered, and a striking subgroup in a large trial is the expected consequence of multiplicity.

If the trend across three draws is flat, the difference between draws one and two was noise. Most of what people react to is noise.

shareimprove this answerflag
SW
answeredswab_and_wait15k1811 Nov 2024
4Is there a reason to prefer the second method over the first, other than cost? – ivo_paunovic 41 days ago
add a comment
9

Start with the population. The inclusion criteria of the trial determine what its result can be extrapolated to, and the extrapolation people want is usually to a population the trial excluded.

The rodent thyroid C-cell findings that generated the labelled warning appear to be species-specific: rodent C-cells express GLP-1 receptors at high density, human C-cells at very low density, and human calcitonin data across large trial populations has not reproduced the signal. A family history of medullary thyroid carcinoma or MEN2 is nonetheless a genuine contraindication rather than a theoretical one.

On the detail: apoB and LDL-C disagree because they measure different things: LDL-C is the cholesterol mass carried in the LDL fraction, ApoB is a count of atherogenic particles. Small dense particles carry less cholesterol each, so a person with many small particles has a concordantly higher ApoB than their LDL-C suggests. When they disagree, ApoB is the better risk marker.

Worth being explicit that this is interpretation of published data and not medical advice. Laboratory results belong in a conversation with whoever ordered them.

Read the confidence interval, read the estimand, and compute the absolute effect yourself. It takes two minutes and it changes how the result feels.

shareimprove this answerflag
DV
answeredDr_Bram_Verhoeven85k24828 Feb 2025
2This should probably be in the site help pages rather than buried in an answer. – nominal_ten 5 months ago
Good answer, but the confidence interval in the cited trial is wider than implied. – deamidation_watch 4 months ago
add a comment
7

This is a question about what the trial was designed to answer, and the honest response is that it was not designed to answer this.

Liver enzymes are a poor surrogate for hepatic histology in both directions: substantial steatohepatitis with normal transaminases is common, and modest enzyme elevation with minimal fibrosis is common. If the question is fibrosis, the answer comes from a non-invasive score such as FIB-4 or a stiffness measurement, not from ALT.

SURMOUNT-4 randomised participants after an open-label lead-in to continued tirzepatide or placebo, and the withdrawal arm regained a substantial proportion of the lost weight over the following year[1].

Convert everything to an absolute effect before you compare two interventions. Relative effects are not comparable across different baseline risks.

shareimprove this answerflag
RP
answeredravenna_pace13k2723 Nov 2024
I have seen exactly this failure mode twice and both times it was the diluent. – juan_esquivel 5 months ago
2The distinction between purity and content cannot be repeated often enough here. – Dr_Signe_Baldursdottir 6 months ago
add a comment
1

Worth being precise here: read the estimand before the effect size. Almost every apparent contradiction between two published figures from the same trial resolves once you notice that one is a trial-product estimand and the other is a treatment-policy estimand.

The early fall in estimated glomerular filtration rate on treatment is haemodynamic rather than structural. Reduced intraglomerular pressure lowers the filtration rate acutely and preserves the glomerulus chronically — the same pattern seen with renin-angiotensin blockade and with SGLT2 inhibition. A dip of a few millilitres per minute in the first weeks, followed by a shallower long-term slope, is the desired trajectory, not a warning sign.

STEP 1 reported a mean weight change of approximately −14.9 per cent with semaglutide 2.4 mg versus −2.4 per cent with placebo at 68 weeks[1]; the difference between the figures quoted from this trial in different places is an estimand difference.

None of this replaces a clinician who can see the whole picture, and the whole picture is usually where the answer is.

edited 6 Jan 2025 by Dr_Tomas_Kral — removed a claim I could not source

shareimprove this answerflag
DK
answeredDr_Tomas_Kral37k3826 Dec 2024
8Any reason this would differ for a longer peptide? – tobias_maartens 7 months ago
add a comment

Your answer

Ask PeptideStack is a static archive. Posting is closed, but the norms are worth stating: answer the question that was asked, show your working, cite the trial or the certificate, and say plainly where the evidence runs out.

Not medical advice. Research-use-only compounds are not approved for human use.